2012 essay paper upsc

UPSC Main (2012) Essay Question Paper

Q.1)  In the context of Gandhiji’s views on the matter, explore, on an evolutionary scale, the terms ‘Swadhinata’, ‘Swaraj’ and ‘Dharmarajya’. Critically comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian democracy.

Q.2)  Is the criticism that the ‘Public-Private-Partnership(PPP) model for development is more of a bane than a boon in the Indian context, justified ?

Q.3)  Science and Mysticism : Are they compatible ?

Q.4)  Managing work and home – is the Indian working woman getting a fair deal ?

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[Download] UPSC Essay Question paper of Mains Examination 2012

Attempt Any one of the following (200 Marks)

• In the context of Gandhiji’s views on the matter, explore, on an evolutionary scale, the terms ‘Swadhinata’, ‘Swaraj’ and ‘Dharmarajya’. Critically comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian democracy.
• Is the criticism that the ‘Public-Private-Partnership’ (PPP) model for development is more of a bane than a boon in the Indian context, justified ?
• Science and Mysticism : Are they compatible ?
• Managing work and home – is the Indian working woman getting a fair deal ?

So, which one did you / would you attempt and what keywords/fodder would you incorporate in it?

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54 comments.

Wrote the essay on ppp model. introduction-talked about the mauryan state, which was perhaps the first model of state facilitating private enterprise, leading to increasing prosperity and resource base of the state. presented a sector wise analysis of the indian economy, whereby brought out the benefits of ppp model in infrastructure, manufacturing ,power linking it to tthe recent grid failures etc. talked about the problems:a opaque land acquisition policy, talked about how movements like jjja(jal jangal jamin andolan) point out the land sharks in many cases, and of high end costs to users. spoke about the benefits, especially pointing out the himayat job generation scheme in jammu and kashmir,and how it has led to a growing confidence especially among women. quoted kautilya from arthasastra, and concluded.

sir. please give mechanical engg. civil service exam papers 2012.

please download botany paper of upsc mains 2012.

i have written on 4th one covering women in rural, hills, urban, shg scenario, metro cities, domestic workers, role of ASHA,in sports with examples,cinema, along with patriachal set up of society, crime against women with some recent data, disabled women problems, with various govt initiatives, and some suggestions.

sanskrit paper was not there.. plz make it available if possible

OH i forgot to write about land acquisition problem in PPP. how important a point was that?

I wrote on Working women issue. I started with the question, as it was a question put on. I asked fair deal? fair deal from whom? Govt., State, Employers, In-laws, Parental home, husband, children, and lastly from themselves and most importantly from the society as a whole. I cross checked it across the society, since it was about indian working woman, I checked it through those in organized sector, then in agricultural sector, then tribal society, domestic helps. I made a mesh wire with these two approaches. I evaluated both the negative and positive side of work and home management in interrelation and in different contexts as mentioned above. I did wrote the conclusion that our society as a whole, which is patriarchal is never giving the fair deal to the working woman in managing work and home. I did mention the proposal of half a month salary to be given to the woman as spoken in some quarters. Since I made a mesh, I could write a lot. I ended up writing 17 pages. It was difficult not to deviate from the topic i.e. managing work and home, but I tried to relate the mesh with it at every point. I don’t know how much I will get, but last year I attempted Indian cinema topic(again in question form) and wrote 18 pages and got 108 marks.

UPSC ka syllabus daalo bey

in 250 marks essay exam how many essay question we have to attend and what is the time duration can any body answeared me

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UPSC IAS Prelims 2012 Question Paper (GS Paper 1)

Categories: 2012 , Published: 17th Sep, 2022 ,

Civil Services Prelims Exam is conducted by UPSC (Union Public Services Commission) every.

UPSC Civil Services Examination Prelims 2012 is held on 20th May 2012. Aspirants use the UPSC prelims answer key after the examination to analyze their performance in Prelims examination to make their strategy for further preparation of UPSC mains examination . We are providing the UPSC Prelims question exam paper conducted on 20th May 2012.

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UPSC IAS Prelims Answer Key 2012 will help students to know their correct and incorrect responses and they can calculate the marks that they are going to score in the Prelims exam. The final selection of the candidates for the IAS post depends on the marks secured in the UPSC Mains exam and Interview. UPSC Prelims Exam is the first step of the selection Process but the marks will not be considered while preparing the Final Merit List.

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UPSC prelims 2012 Question Paper Analysis:

In 2012 questions were asked from all the areas UPSC Syllabus .

Questions were asked from:

Current Affairs : 1 Environment & Ecology: 17 India Economy : 17 Sci & Tech : 9 Polity : 20 History : 19 Geography : 17

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Papers / 28 Feb 2024

(Download) UPSC IAS, Civil Services (Prelim) 2012 Solved Exam Question Paper "General Studies (GS Paper -1)" English Medium

(Download) UPSC IAS, Civil Services (Prelim) 2012 Solved Exam Question Paper "General Studies (GS Paper -1)" English Medium

Exam Name: UPSC IAS Civil Services Prelims 2012

Subject: General Studies (GS) Paper -1

Medium: English

1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1 Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2 Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3 Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance (b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

3. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1 Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21 2 Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) 3 Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

5. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1 Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater. 2 The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water. 3 All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India 4 The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

1 Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2 Organizing village Panchayats 3 Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4 Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Consider the following statements:

1 Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2 It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. 3 According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None

8. With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1 Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2 When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3 In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

9. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1 He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2 He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3 If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

10. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1 A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2 A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3 A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4 A dispute between two or more States

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

11. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

12. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. 2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

13. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1 It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water. 2 It removes all the undesirable odours from the water. 3 It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

14. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units 2. Pens and pencils 3. Paints 4. Hair oils and cosmetics

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only. 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements : Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams 2. in the production of tubeless tyres 3. in cleaning certain electronic components 4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

18. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper. 2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter. 3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space 3. Movement of asteroids in space 4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above can be cited as evidence

20. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles (b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space (c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

21. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD. 2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD. 3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD. 4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment 2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas 3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

23. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking 2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts 3. Increasing the government spending on public health 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

(a)1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent (b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified (c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture (d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

25. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces (b) emergence of a left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible (c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

26. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup 2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy 3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization 4. Conducting the delivery of baby

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only (b) 2 and 4 Only (c) 1 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

27. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

28. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government. (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose (c) Behramji Malabari and MG Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

29. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation 3. The Independent Labour Party

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services (c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement (d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

31. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1 By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas 2 By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development 3 By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1 Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level 2 Purchasing power parity at national level 3 Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

33. Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1 A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design 2 A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend 3 Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

34. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1 Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones 2 Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance' 3 Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

35. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

36. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations (b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion (c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

37. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements :

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government. 2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots. 3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

38. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development :

1. Low birthrate with low death rate 2. High birthrate with high death rate 3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1

39. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90% Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles

(a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

41. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn' What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together (d) None of the above

43. A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan. 2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

44. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Cowpea 2. Green gram 3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

45. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth 2. Air pressure and wind 3. Density of ocean water 4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

46. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States. 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Groundnut 2. Sesamum 3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops?

48. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :

1. Deep gorges 2. U-turn river courses 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface 2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere 3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

50. The acidification of oceans is increasing Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

51. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries 2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery 3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

53. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the" Houses within six months (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months (c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament (d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

54. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

55. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants 2. Motor transport undertakings 3. Newspaper establishments 4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?

56. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

57. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill

58. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country. 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures. 3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes. 4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

59. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

61. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

62. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat (b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation (c) all the solar radiations (d) the infrared part of the solar radiation

63. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen (c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus (d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

64. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome. 2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies. 3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health. 4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

65. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations 4. To increase their shelf life

66. Consider the following statements :The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

67. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period. 2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. 3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above is correct

68. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam. 2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

69. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath 2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place 3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

70. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts (b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial (c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement (d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

71. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence 2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session 3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

(a) I only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above

72. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes

(a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation (b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara (c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory (d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

73. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas (c) worship of nature and Yajnas (d) worship of nature and Bhakti

74. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry. 2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts. 3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI. 2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need. 3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product 2. When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned 3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

77. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank 2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public 3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank 4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

78. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies 4. Portfolio investment

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

79. Consider the following statements:The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank 2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned 3. stability of the government of the concerned country 4. economic potential of the country in question

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

80. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district (b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks (c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development (d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

81. Consider the following :

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops 2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare 3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None

82. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them. 2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild. 3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

83. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

84. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use. 2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. 3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

85. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) direction facing the polestar (b) direction opposite to the polestar (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left (d) direction keeping the polestar to his right

86. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

87. Consider the following areas:

1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) l, 2, 3 and 4

88. Consider the following statements :

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India. 2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

89. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year (b) Rainfall in winter only (c) An extremely short dry season (d) A definite dry and wet season

90. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves (b) National Parks (c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

91. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

92. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane) (d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

93. Consider the following statements : If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp 2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink 3. the blotting paper would fail to function 4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water (b) Control of climate and disease (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination (d) Maintenance of diversity

95. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains (b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk (c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

96. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitat 3. Invasion of alien species 4. Promotion of vegetarianism

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

97. Consider the following :

1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

98. Consider the following agricultural practices :

1. Contour bunding 2. Relay cropping 3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them

99. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. 2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. 3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

100. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle (c) scarcity of food available to them (d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

:: Answer Keys ::

1. d, 2. a, 3. d, 4. a, 5. b, 6. d, 7. d, 8. c, 9. b, 10. c, 11. d, 12. c, 13. a, 14. c, 15. a, 16. c, 17. c, 18. b, 19. a, 20. a, 21. c, 22. b, 23. c, 24. c, 25. d, 26. d, 27. c, 28. b, 29. b, 30. b, 31. a, 32. a, 33. d, 34. d, 35. a, 36. c, 37. b, 38. c, 39. c, 40. c, 41. c, 42. c, 43. a, 44. a, 45. b, 46. a, 47. c, 48. d, 49. c, 50. a, 51. a, 52. a, 53. a, 54. c, 55. a, 56. a, 57. a, 58. b, 59. c, 60. a, 61. d, 62. d, 63. b, 64. b, 65. c, 66. a, 67. b, 68. a, 69. d, 70. b, 71. a, 72. d, 73. c, 74. b, 75. d, 76. b, 77. c, 78. d, 79. b, 80. c, 81. d, 82. c, 83. c, 84. b, 85. c, 86. c, 87. b, 88. c, 89. d, 90. b, 91. d, 92. a, 93. b, 94. d, 95. a, 96. a, 97. b, 98. c, 99. b, 100. b

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Essay (UPSC Mains) - Previous Year Questions

Looking for comprehensive preparation for the UPSC Mains Essay paper? Explore our collection of previous year questions from 2013 to 2024. Get insights, practice, and boost your chances of success with Past year questions and answers.

Essay Paper - UPSC Mains PYQs

• Forests precede civilizations and deserts follow them.
• The empires of the future will be the empires of the mind.
• There is no path to happiness; Happiness is the path.
• The doubter is a true man of science.
• Social media is triggering 'Fear of Missing Out' amongst the youth, precipitating depression and loneliness.
• Nearly all men can stand adversity, but to test the character, give him power.
• All ideas having large consequences are always simple.
• The cost of being wrong is less than the cost of doing nothing.
• Thinking is like a game; it does not begin unless there is an opposite team.
• Visionary decision-making happens at the intersection of intuition and logic.
• Not all who wander are lost.
• Inspiration for creativity springs from the effort to look for the magical in the mundane.
• Girls are weighed down by restrictions, boys with demands — two equally harmful disciplines.
• Mathematics is the Music of Reason.
• A society that has more justice is a society that needs less charity.
• Education is what remains after one has forgotten what one has learned in school.

Value based / Ethical Issues

• A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.
• Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

Philosophical

• The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.
• You can not step twice in the same river.
• A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for.

Miscellaneous / Mixed

• Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence. (Environment / Economics)
• Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world ( Literature / Socio-political-economic impacts)
• History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man ( History / Values / Philosophy)
• Your perception of me is a reflection of you; my reaction to you is an awareness of me.
• Philosophy of wantlessness is Utopian, while materialism is a chimera.
• The real is rational and the rational is real.
• Hand that rocks the cradle rules the world.

History / Culture

• History repeats itself, first as a tragedy, second as a farce.

Science and Technology

• What is research, but a blind date with knowledge!
• There are better practices to “best practices”. ( Multiple Themes )
• The process of self-discovery has now been technologically outsourced. ( Philosophy / Technology)
• Life is long journey between human being and being humane.
• Mindful manifesto is the catalyst to a tranquil self.
• Ships do not sink because of water around them; ships sink because of water that gets into them.
• Simplicity is the ultimate sophistication.
• Culture is what we are, civilization is what we have.

Social Issues

• There can be no social justice without economic prosperity but economic prosperity without social justice is meaningless.
• Patriarchy is the least noticed yet the most significant structure of social inequality.
• Technology as the silent factor in international relations ( Technology / International Relation ).
• Values are not what humanity is, but what humanity ought to be.
• Courage to accept and dedication to improve are two keys to success.
• Wisdom finds truth.
• South Asian societies are woven not around the state, but around their plural cultures and plural identities.
• Best for an individual is not necessarily best for the society.
• Neglect of primary health care and education in India are reasons for its backwardness.

Science & Technology

• Rise of Artificial Intelligence: the threat of jobless future or better job opportunities through reskilling and upskilling.
• Biased media is a real threat to Indian democracy.
• A good life is one inspired by love and guided by knowledge.
• A people that value its privileges above its principles lose both.
• “The past’ is a permanent dimension of human consciousness and values.
• Customary morality cannot be a guide to modern life.
• Reality does not conform to the ideal, but confirms it.
• Poverty anywhere is a threat to prosperity everywhere.

Environment

• Alternative technologies for a climate change resilient India.

IR & Security

• Management of Indian border disputes – a complex task.
• Joy is the simplest form of gratitude.
• Fulfilment of ‘new woman’ in India is a myth.
• Social media is inherently a selfish medium Domain.
• Has the Non- Alignment Movement (NAM) lost its relevance in a multi-polar world Domain.
• Farming has lost the ability to be a source of subsistence for majority of farmers in India Domain. ( Agriculture )
• Impact of the new economic measures on fiscal ties between the union and states in India Domain.
• Destiny of a nation is shaped in its classrooms.

Polity & Governance

• We may brave human laws but cannot resist natural laws Domain.
• Need brings greed, if greed increases it spoils breed.
• If development is not engendered, it is endangered.
• Cyberspace and internet: Blessing or curse to the human civilization in the long run Domain.
• Near jobless growth in India: An anomaly or an outcome of economic reforms.
• Water disputes between states in federal India Domain.
• Cooperative federalism: Myth or reality India.
• Digital economy: A leveller or a source of economic inequality. ( Technology / Economy)
• Innovation is the key determinant of economic growth and social welfare Domain. ( Technology / Economy / Social Sector)
• Character of an institution is reflected in its leader.
• Lending hands to someone is better than giving a dole.
• Quick but steady wins the race.
• Technology cannot replace manpower.
• Can capitalism bring inclusive growth?
• Education without values, as useful as it is, seems rather to make a man more clever devil. ( Education / Ethics)
• Crisis faced in India – moral or economic. ( Morality / Economics)
• With greater power comes greater responsibility.
• Words are sharper than the two-edged sword.
• Is sting operation an invasion on privacy?
• Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of implementation which slowed the growth of our country?
• Tourism: Can this be the next big thing for India?
• Is the growing level of competition good for the youth?
• Are the standardized tests, good measure of academic ability or progress?
• Dreams which should not let India sleep. ( Multiple themes )
• Fifty Gold’s in Olympics: Can this be a reality for India? ( Sports / Governance )
• Be the change you want to see in others – Gandhiji
• Science and technology is the panacea for the growth and security of the nation.
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) along with GDH (Gross Domestic Happiness) would be the right indices for judging the well-being of a country.
• Is the Colonial mentality hindering India’s Success? ( History / Culture / Growth & Development / Ethics )

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Essay Syllabus

In this article, we will discuss the UPSC essay syllabus and its importance in the preparation for the prestigious Civil Services Examination. The essay paper is a vital component of the UPSC mains exam, and it evaluates a candidate’s ability to express their thoughts in a concise and coherent manner. We will explore the structure and format of the essay paper, the types of topics that usually appear, and the approach that candidates should adopt while attempting the essay. By the end of this article, you will have a clear understanding of the IAS essay syllabus and how to prepare for it effectively.

Importance of Essay Paper

Aspiring candidates preparing for the UPSC IAS examination must pay close attention to the Essay Paper section. It holds significant weightage and plays a vital role in determining the candidate’s overall rank. You must dedicate time and effort to develop this skill, as the Essay Paper is a reflection of your critical analytical and comprehensive aptitude. This paper evaluates your presentation skills, creativity, and thought process. Moreover, it tests your ability to articulate your thoughts coherently and succinctly. So, start working on your writing skills from today to make the most of this crucial paper.

Syllabus Overview

The syllabus for the essay paper is not specifically defined . Aspiring civil servants preparing for the highly competitive UPSC IAS exam must focus their attention on the essay paper. This is where candidates can showcase their writing skills and analytical abilities.

The essay paper is divided into two sections, each consisting of four topics. Candidates are required to write two essays in a span of three hours. The essays carry a total of 250 marks and are a crucial part of the selection process. It covers a wide range of topics from socioeconomic issues, to political and philosophical musings.

However, it is important to note that candidates are not expected to be experts in any particular subject. Rather, the essay paper tests their ability to articulate their thoughts and opinions. It is crucial that candidates start preparing for the essay paper well in advance, paying careful attention to the type of essays and common mistakes to avoid.

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Types of Essays

When it comes to the UPSC Essay Syllabus , it’s crucial to understand the types of essays you’ll be asked to write. As such, you must know the different types of essays that are tested in the examination, such as Informative essays, Descriptive essays, Narrative essays, and Persuasive essays. Each type has its unique writing style, skill set, and format to adhere to.

Thus, mastering each essay type is important to score high marks in the exam. While an informative essay highlights the positive and negative points of the given topic, a descriptive essay must focus on describing the topic. The narrative essay must follow a story-style narration while the Persuasive essay must be written in a way to convince the reader about the given topic.

Therefore, a deep understanding of the types of essays is necessary to excel in the UPSC IAS Exam.

Topics for Essay Writing

The UPSC Essay paper is an important part of the Civil Services Examination. As a part of the UPSC essay syllabus , candidates need to write two essays for the examination. The essays are supposed to be on topics of national and international importance, relevant social, economic, and political issues, cultural, historical and geographical significance, and contemporary issues of interest.

The topics for essay writing can range from the economy, politics, education, health, women empowerment, environmental issues, human rights, current affairs, science, technology, and more. It is advisable to read newspapers and books to keep oneself updated with the latest developments and possible essay topics. Additionally, candidates can also refer to previous years’ question papers to understand the nature of the questions and topics that are frequently asked.

Candidates should choose a topic that they are familiar with and express their thoughts and opinions in a coherent and structured way. The essay should be well-researched, free from grammatical errors, and should have a clear introduction, body, and conclusion. By choosing the right topic and writing an impressive essay, candidates can score well on the UPSC IAS Essay paper .

Essay Writing Tips

Here are some tips for candidates to excel in the essay writing section:

• Understand the topic: It’s important to read and comprehend the essay topic thoroughly. Ensure that you understand the question’s intent, the tone of the essay, and the arguments that you need to present.
• Prepare an outline: Creating an outline before writing helps the writer organise their thoughts and arguments logically. It ensures that the essay is structured and coherent.
• Write in a simple and lucid language: UPSC exams are not meant to test your vocabulary. Therefore, try to write in simple and clear language.
• Stick to the word limit: The UPSC sets a word limit for each essay question. Exceeding the limit can result in a deduction of marks. Therefore, it is crucial to practice writing essays within the stipulated word limit.
• Provide examples and facts: To support your arguments, use real-life examples and factual data to reinforce your views.

By following these tips and practising regularly, aspiring candidates can improve their essay-writing skills, making it easier to crack the UPSC exam successfully.

How to Prepare for an Essay Paper

The essay paper is an integral part of the UPSC IAS exam, and it requires a different level of preparation compared to other papers. In order to ace the essay paper, it is important to have a clear strategy and methodical approach.

First and foremost, it is essential to understand the types of essays that might appear in the exam. This will help in creating a plan for essay writing and practicing accordingly.

Another important aspect is staying updated on current affairs and trending topics. Keeping oneself informed about world events and happenings helps in generating ideas and content for the essay.

It is also crucial to focus on improving language skills and creative thinking. Reading widely, practicing writing every day, and taking mock essay tests can help in enhancing these skills.

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When it comes to time management, it is recommended to allocate a fixed amount of time for brainstorming, outlining, and writing the essay. This helps in maintaining a structured and organized approach.

Lastly, it is crucial to avoid common mistakes like using too many quotes, memorizing essays, or not staying relevant to the topic. These mistakes can be easily avoided by focusing on the guidelines and practicing regularly.

Overall, preparing for the essay paper requires focus, dedication, and a structured approach. By following these tips, one can improve their chances of acing the essay paper and moving closer to their dream of becoming an IAS officer.

Common Mistakes to Avoid in Essay Writing

UPSC essay writing is an important component of the civil services examination. However, many students make some common mistakes while writing their essays that can prove detrimental to their scores. Here are a few errors to avoid when writing your UPSC essays :

• Lack of clarity: One of the most common mistakes that students make is writing unclear or ambiguous essays. Ensure that the language and ideas that you use are clear and concise.
• Overuse of quotes: Many students use too many quotations in their essays, which makes them sound less original. Try to use quotes sparingly, and only when they add significant value to your essay.
• Poor structure: A well-structured essay requires an introduction, several paragraphs supporting your arguments, and a conclusion. Ensure that your essay has a clear and logical structure.
• Lack of relevance: Many students write essays that are not directly relevant to the question asked, which can result in a reduced score. Make sure you understand the question and write an essay that is directly relevant to it.
• Poor time management: UPSC essay writing requires a student to demonstrate their ability to write coherently and without errors within a given period. Students must manage their time effectively, allowing ample time for each paragraph, revision, and proofreading.
• Lack of examples: Candidates should use examples from real life, which strengthens their arguments and provides more depth to their essays.

Avoid these common mistakes during your UPSC essay writing , and you are one step closer to achieving a high score that will make you proud.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs):-

Q1. Which type of essay comes in the IAS exam?

Ans: The four types of essays that come in the IAS exam are Informative essays, Descriptive essays, Narrative essays, and Persuasive essays.

Q2. How to write a UPSC-level essay?

Ans: Tips to write UPSC Essay are given in the article above.

Q3. What is a good score for a UPSC essay?

Ans: An average score falls within the range of 110-125. However, exceptional essays can receive marks as high as 150-160.

Q4. How long is the UPSC essay paper?

Ans: The candidate is to write two essays in a span of 3 hours with a word limit of 1000-1200 words per essay. There are two sections which contain 4 topics each and out of which the candidate has to pick a single topic from each section to write an essay on.

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• GS Paper 1 UPSC 2024 (Mains) Question Paper and Analysis

Last updated on September 23, 2024 by Alex Andrews George

UPSC conducted the General Studies Paper 1, as part of the Civil Services Main Exam 2024 on 21-09-2024.

The question paper comprises a total of 20 questions. Out of these, 10 questions are of 10 marks each, and the rest of the 10 questions are of 15 marks.

Further details related to UPSC CSE GS Paper 1 Mains 2024 is provided below.

Table of Contents

GS Paper 1 UPSC 2024: Instructions

Check the exam instructions mentioned on the  UPSC  CSE GS 1 mains question paper:

• Total Marks: 250 marks, Time duration: 3 hours.
• There are 20 questions printed both in ENGLISH and HINDI.
• All questions are compulsory.
• The number of marks carried by a question/part is printed against it.
• Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this question-cum-answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided.
• No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.
• Answers to questions no. 1 to 10 should be in 150 words, whereas answers to questions no. 11 to 20 should be in 250 words.
• Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind.
• Any page or portion of the page left blank, must be struck off clearly.
• The content of the answer is more important than its length.

General Studies Paper 1 Question Paper: UPSC Civil Services Main Exam (Written) 2024

• Underline the changes in the field of society and economy from the Rig Vedic to the later Vedic period . (Answer in 150 words)
• Estimate the contribution of Pallavas of Kanchi for the development of art and literature of South India. (Answer in 150 words)
• What were the events that led to the Quit India Movement? Point out its results. (Answer in 150 words)
• What is sea surface temperature rise? How does it affect the formation of tropical cyclones? (Answer in 150 words)
• Why do large cities tend to attract more migrants than smaller towns? Discuss in the light of conditions in developing countries. (Answer in 150 words)
• What is the phenomenon of ‘ cloudbursts ’? Explain. (Answer in 150 words)
• What is the concept of a ‘demographic winter’? Is the world moving towards such a situation? Elaborate. (Answer in 150 words)
• Distinguish between gender equality, gender equity and women’s empowerment. Why is it important to take gender concerns into account in programme design and implementation? (Answer in 150 words)
• Intercaste marriages between castes which have socio-economic parity have increased, to some extent, but this is less true of interreligious marriages. Discuss. (Answer in 150 words)
• In dealing with socio-economic Issues of development, what kind of collaboration between government, NGOs and private sector would be most productive? (Answer in 150 words)
• “Though the great Cholas are no more yet their name is still remembered with great pride because of their highest achievements in the domain of art and architecture”. Comment. (Answer in 250 words)
• How far is it correct to say that the First World War was fought essentially for the preservation of balance of power? (Answer in 250 words)
• How far was the Industrial Revolution in England responsible for the decline of handicrafts and cottage industries in India? (Answer in 250 words)
• The groundwater potential of the gangetic valley is on a serious decline. How may it affect the food security of India? (Answer in 250 words)
• What are aurora australis and aurora borealis? How are these triggered? (Answer in 250 words)
• What is a twister? Why are the majority of twisters observed in areas around the Gulf of Mexico? (Answer in 250 words)
• What is regional disparity How does it differ from diversity? How serious is the issue of regional disparity in India? (Answer in 250 words)
• Despite comprehensive policies for equity and social justice, underprivileged sections are not yet getting the full benefits of affirmative action envisaged by the Constitution. Comment. (Answer in 250 words)
• Globalization has increased urban migration by skilled, young, unmarried women from various classes. How has this trend impacted upon their personal freedom and relationship with family? (Answer in 250 words)
• Critically analyse the proposition that there is a high correlation between India’s cultural diversities and socio-economic marginalities. (Answer in 250 words)

UPSC CSE Mains 2024 General Studies Paper 1 Question Topics

Here are brief notes on each of the questions from the UPSC CSE Mains 2024 General Studies Paper 1:

1. Changes in Society and Economy from Rig Vedic to Later Vedic Period

• Society: Transition from a nomadic, pastoral society to a more settled, agrarian one. Shift in power from tribal assemblies to monarchy. Increased stratification of society into varnas.
• Economy: Focus shifted from cattle rearing to agriculture , with use of iron tools (plough). Emergence of private land ownership, urbanization , and rise of surplus production.

2. Contribution of Pallavas of Kanchi to South Indian Art and Literature

• Art: Pallavas initiated rock-cut architecture (Mahabalipuram), later evolving into structural temples like Kailasanatha. Sculpture and iconography flourished.
• Literature: Encouraged Sanskrit literature and promoted scholars like Bharavi and Dandin. Dravidian culture enriched, marking a golden era in the south.

3. Events Leading to the Quit India Movement and Its Results

• Events: British refusal to grant India dominion status after WWII; growing unrest. Cripps Mission failure and continued exploitation during the war. Gandhi’s call for “Do or Die.”
• Results: Widespread uprisings, brutal British suppression, and mass arrests of leaders. Though short-term success was limited, it led to growing disillusionment with British rule and strengthened the call for freedom.

4. Sea Surface Temperature Rise and Its Effect on Tropical Cyclones

• Sea Surface Temperature (SST): The rise in SST due to global warming increases ocean heat content, fueling more intense tropical cyclones .
• Cyclones: Warmer waters provide more energy for cyclone formation, increasing their frequency, intensity, and destructive power.

5. Why Large Cities Attract More Migrants than Smaller Towns?

• Opportunities: Large cities offer better employment prospects , infrastructure, education, healthcare, and housing, which are scarce in smaller towns.
• Developing Countries: Push factors like rural poverty and lack of services in smaller towns exacerbate migration trends.

6. Cloudbursts: Explanation of the Phenomenon

• Cloudbursts: Sudden, intense rainfall over a small area, caused by orographic lift or rapid condensation of water vapor. Prevalent in hilly areas.
• Impact: Leads to flash floods , landslides, and damage in vulnerable regions.

7. Demographic Winter and its Global Implications

• Demographic Winter: Phenomenon where birth rates fall below replacement levels, leading to population decline and aging.
• Global Trend: Some countries (e.g., Japan, Italy) are experiencing this, leading to economic strain, shrinking workforce, and higher dependency ratios.

8. Distinction between Gender Equality, Equity, and Women’s Empowerment

• Equality: Equal treatment of men and women.
• Equity: Fairness in treatment based on respective needs.
• Empowerment: Enabling women to control their own lives. Important in designing inclusive programs that ensure equal opportunities.

9. Intercaste vs. Interreligious Marriages

• Intercaste Marriages: Increased between castes with socio-economic parity due to shared social circles and rising education.
• Interreligious Marriages: Less frequent due to religious dogma , societal taboos, and family opposition, making them less accepted.

10. Government-NGO-Private Sector Collaboration for Socio-Economic Development

• Collaboration: Government provides regulation , NGOs offer grassroots connections , and private sector brings efficiency and funding.
• Most Productive: Synergizing strengths for better implementation of development policies .

11. Cholas’ Contribution to Art and Architecture

• Achievements: Known for grand temples (Brihadeeswara), bronze sculpture, and Tamil literature. Their style influenced south Indian temple architecture.
• Legacy: The Cholas’ artistic innovations left a lasting cultural and architectural heritage .

12. First World War and Balance of Power

• Balance of Power: European nations entered the war to maintain political balance against rising German influence. Power blocs (Triple Entente, Triple Alliance) led to the war.
• Other Factors: Economic rivalries and imperialism also played key roles.

13. Industrial Revolution’s Impact on Indian Handicrafts

• Impact: Cheap mass-produced goods from England led to the decline of traditional industries like textiles, causing unemployment and poverty among artisans.
• British Policies: Trade policies favored British imports over Indian goods, hastening the decline.

14. Decline of Groundwater in the Gangetic Valley and Food Security

• Groundwater Decline: Over-extraction for agriculture reduces availability for irrigation, risking food production in a region critical to India’s food supply.
• Food Security: Affects yields , increases costs, and leads to water conflicts .

15. Aurora Australis and Aurora Borealis

• Auroras: Natural light displays in polar regions, caused by solar winds interacting with Earth’s magnetic field.
• Trigger: Charged particles from the sun hit the Earth’s magnetosphere , causing atmospheric gases to emit light.

16. Twisters and Why They Occur near the Gulf of Mexico

• Twister: A violent rotating column of air , commonly known as a tornado.
• Gulf of Mexico: The region’s warm, moist air meets cooler air, creating ideal conditions for tornado formation.

17. Regional Disparity vs. Diversity

• Disparity: Differences in economic development across regions.
• Diversity: Differences in culture, language, and practices. Regional disparity in India is serious due to uneven resource distribution and policy failures .

18. Underprivileged Sections and Affirmative Action

• Challenges: Though policies exist, implementation gaps , societal discrimination, and lack of awareness hinder full benefits to the underprivileged.
• Affirmative Action: Needs more targeted interventions for better results.

19. Impact of Urban Migration by Young, Unmarried Women

• Freedom: Migration offers greater financial independence and personal freedom.
• Family Relations: Strains traditional family structures, but also leads to evolving social norms regarding gender roles .

20. Correlation between India’s Cultural Diversity and Socio-Economic Marginalities

• Diversity: India’s cultural variety often correlates with regional and socio-economic divides.
• Marginalization: Tribal and minority communities are often left behind in economic development, deepening socio-economic marginalities.

GS Paper 1 UPSC 2024 (Mains): Question Paper Analysis

Please find my analysis of the UPSC CSE Mains 2024 General Studies Paper 1:

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Thematic Focus

The paper covers a wide range of themes across history, geography, social issues, and environmental studies. The questions reflect a balanced approach between factual knowledge and conceptual understanding .

• Historical and Cultural Heritage: Several questions are rooted in India’s history, such as the contributions of the Pallavas and Cholas , the Rig Vedic to Later Vedic transition , and the impact of the First World War . These questions demand a clear understanding of cultural evolution, key contributions to Indian art and architecture, and the socio-political context of historical events.
• Indian Freedom Struggle: The inclusion of the Quit India Movement underscores the importance of understanding key turning points in India’s fight for independence. The question not only asks for the historical narrative but also the results of the movement, emphasizing cause-effect relationships in history.
• Geographical Phenomena and Environmental Issues: Topics like sea surface temperature rise , cloudbursts , auroras , and twisters demonstrate the paper’s focus on environmental science and physical geography. These questions test the candidate’s understanding of natural phenomena and their broader implications, such as the formation of tropical cyclones due to global warming.
• Social Issues and Gender Equality: Questions on gender equality, equity, and women’s empowerment , as well as urban migration by young women , highlight the paper’s emphasis on contemporary social issues. The question on intercaste vs. interreligious marriages reflects the ongoing relevance of caste and religion in Indian society, whereas gender issues are connected to wider global concerns about equity and empowerment.
• Development and Governance: The questions on NGO-private sector-government collaboration and the challenges of regional disparity point toward governance and development themes. These questions explore the role of multiple stakeholders in driving socio-economic progress and address disparities that are critical to policymaking.
• Environmental Sustainability and Resource Management: The concern about groundwater depletion in the Gangetic Valley and its impact on food security highlights environmental sustainability challenges. The question links resource management to broader national concerns like food security, bringing in the intersection of environment and economy.

Key Observations

• Emphasis on Contemporary Relevance: The paper includes several questions that require an understanding of current global and national trends. For instance, demographic winter and urban migration reflect ongoing demographic shifts, while the focus on climate-related phenomena shows an awareness of pressing environmental challenges.
• Interdisciplinary Nature: The questions encourage an interdisciplinary approach , merging history with sociology, geography with environmental science, and economics with social equity. This tests a candidate’s ability to integrate knowledge across subjects.
• Balance of Theoretical and Practical Understanding: Questions like the one on gender equality or the role of Cholas in architecture require both theoretical grounding and practical examples . Similarly, environmental questions demand a blend of scientific facts and real-world implications.
• Development-Centric Focus: Several questions, particularly those on regional disparity , affirmative action , and collaborations for development , focus on socio-economic challenges in India. This reflects UPSC’s focus on development issues and governance , crucial for candidates to understand.

Challenge Level

The questions are analytical rather than purely factual, demanding candidates to explain concepts, analyze events, and link causes to effects. This requires an ability to condense vast knowledge into concise answers , a hallmark of the UPSC CSE exam. Topics like demographic winter and gender equity are conceptually dense and need both clear articulation and contemporary examples.

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The paper tests the aspirants’ ability to understand and analyze a variety of themes through a lens of historical perspective , environmental concern , and socio-economic development .

It also reflects the growing importance of current affairs , particularly in terms of sustainable development and social justice .

Candidates need to draw on diverse sources of knowledge and express nuanced arguments within the limited word count, showcasing not just content mastery but also precision and clarity in communication.

Related Posts

• GS Paper 2 UPSC 2024 (Mains) Question Paper and Analysis
• GS Paper 3 UPSC 2024 (Mains) Question Paper and Analysis
• GS Paper 4 UPSC 2024 (Mains) Question Paper and Analysis
• Essay Paper UPSC 2024 (Mains) Question Paper and Analysis

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UPSC Mains Question Paper 2024: Download Essay and GS Papers

Upsc mains 2024 essay question paper 2024: upsc started conducting mains examination on september 20, 2024, across different exam centres.  the question paper is essential for understanding the exam pattern, level and topics asked. get the direct link below to download pdf for each subject..

UPSC Mains Question Paper 2024: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has started conducting the UPSC Mains Examination 2024. Candidates can download the UPSC essay, GS 1, 2, 3, 4 and optional question papers for 2024 from the direct link that is given below. The question paper is a useful preparation and self-assessment tool for candidates to practice and understand the trend of topics asked in the examination. Candidates who are preparing for the next cycle of the UPSC Exam must download the UPSC essay question paper, as it will help in knowing the difficulty level and topic asked in the examination.

Also Check,

UPSC Mains Syllabus 2024

UPSC Question Paper 2024

• Practicing with questions ensures that candidates become familiar with the structure of the paper, improving their confidence and reducing any anxiety in the examination.
• Regular practicing helps candidates to manage their time effectively in the examination and ensures that they complete the paper within a given period of time. 
• Regular writing helps candidates to express their thoughts clearly, logically, and concisely. This is especially important in subjective papers where marks are awarded for both content and presentation.

Download UPSC IAS Question Paper 2024 PDF

Topics Asked in the IAS Mains Essay Paper 

The UPSC IAS Essay question consists of two sections where questions from 4 topics were asked in each section. Candidates need to write an essay of 1000-1200 words on 1 topic of their choice from the section

1. जंगल सभ्यताओं से पहले आते हैं और रेगिस्तान उनके बाद आते हैं।

Forests precede civilizations and deserts follow them.

2. भविष्य के साम्राज्य, मस्तिष्क के साम्राज्य होंगे ।

The empires of the future will be the empires of the mind.

3. प्रसन्नता का कोई मार्ग नहीं है; प्रसन्नता ही मार्ग है।

There is no path to happiness; Happiness is the path.  

4. प्रश्न पूछने वाला ही विज्ञान का सच्चा सिपाही है ।

The doubter is a true man of science.

5. सोशल मीडिया युवाओं में 'छूटने का डर' पैदा कर रहा है जिसके कारण उनमें अवसाद और अकेलापन बढ़ रहा है ।

Social media is triggering 'Fear of Missing Out' amongst the youth, precipitating depression and loneliness.

6.  लगभग सभी मनुष्य प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों का सामना कर सकते हैं, लेकिन किसी व्यक्ति के चरित्र के परीक्षण के लिए, उसे शक्ति प्रदान करके देखिए ।

Nearly all men can stand adversity, but to test the character, give him power.

7. व्यापक परिणाम वाले सभी विचार हमेशा साधारण ही होते हैं।

All ideas having large consequences are always simple.

8. ग़लत होने की कीमत कुछ न करने की कीमत से कम है ।

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• How to download the UPSC Question Papers? + Candidates can download the UPSC Question Papers from this article. The exam prep team of Jagran Josh has compiled the released question paper.
• What is the UPSC IAS Mains Question Paper Pattern? + The UPSC IAS Mains question paper consists of nine papers: Essay, GS 1, GS 2, GS 3, GS 4, English, Indian Language Paper and two papers from the optional subject.
• Is there a negative marking on the UPSC Question Papers? + No, as the papers are subjective in nature there will be no negative marking
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• Ethics and Human Interface
• 16 Aug 2022
• 19 min read
• GS Paper - 4

For Mains: Dimensions of Ethics, Determinants and Consequences of Ethics in Human Action, Importance of Ethics in Private and Public Relationship.

What is Ethics?

• Ethics is a set of principles that influences our decisions and determines the direction and goal of our lives.
• The preservation of principles and ideals is also a part of it.
• It takes more than just following a tradition or custom, rather, it necessitates research and assessment of these rules in the context of universal truths.

What is the Dimension of Ethics?

• It is concerned with what individuals genuinely perceive to be correct or incorrect.
• It gives us a broad picture of how people live their lives, or their life pattern.
• It provides a history of certain stigmas, traditions, or practices.
• Normative ethics is also called perspective ethics.
• It is basically intended to establish moral benchmarks that define what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior.
• It is an effort to find the best yardstick for righteous conduct.
• How individuals should behave is determined by the study of ethical theory.
• The issues that decide whether a certain issue or object is morally correct or wrong are the primary concern of meta ethics.
• It is more concerned with the fairness of morality itself than with whether a particular conduct is moral or immoral.
• Non- Cognitivism: According to this conceptual perspective, whether we categorize anything as right or wrong is a reflection of our moral knowledge.
• Cognitivism: This way of thinking places a strong focus on how facts and figures determine what is morally right and wrong.
• It is the discipline of ethics that examines specific, contentious moral concerns such as abortion, animal rights, and euthanasia. It is beneficial to apply understanding of moral concepts to contemporary issues.

What is the Essence of Ethics?

• The scope of ethics includes only voluntary human actions. This means the actions done by humans consciously, deliberately and in view of an end. It is concerned about that part of human conduct for which humans have some personal responsibility.
• It is a set of standards that a society places on itself and which helps in guiding behavior, choices and actions of its members.
• It is concerned about what is right, fair, just or good, about what we ought to do, not just about what is most acceptable or expedient.
• It endeavors to analyze and evaluate the principles embodied in various alternatives for conduct and social order.
• It includes study of universal values such as essential equalities of all men and women, human or natural rights, obedience to the law, concern for health and safety and, increasingly, also for the natural environment.

What are the Determinants and Consequences of Ethics in Human Action?

• ‘Human action’ is the starting point of ethics. One of the very first points of consideration in judging the morality or immorality of any act of a person is that it must be a conscious human act, before it can have any moral quality whatsoever.
• Thus, since digestion, growth, movement of blood in the veins, etc. are not under the control of our will, they are not spoken of as moral acts at all. They are acts of a human person, but they are not called ‘human acts.
• A human act is one that proceeds from knowledge and free will. If either adequate knowledge or freedom is lacking in the act of a person, then that act is not fully human and therefore, not fully moral.
• Thus, the judgment of rightness and wrongness can be passed on only those actions which are voluntary. They have to be intended by the doer, based on adequate knowledge, i.e., the act must be voluntary.
• However, there are certain factors that diminish or reduce the voluntariness of human actions. These are called the impediments to conscious human action.
• However, when there is reason or knowledge involved, when the acts are voluntary, it can be determined whether a given human act is good or bad. As per moral theologians there are certain determinants of the moral quality of our actions. These are:
• One of the criteria of judging the morality/goodness of human acts is its object/nature . Every action has a particular nature/essence that makes it different from other actions. An act thus specified may, when considered in itself, be good, bad, or indifferent. Thus, helping a blind person across the street is a good act in itself, to blaspheme is bad in itself, and learning to shoot is in itself an indifferent act and learning to shoot is in itself an indifferent act.
• Reason also attests that some of the human acts by their very nature are incapable of being good because they radically contradict the notion of good, for instance, rape, murder of innocent children, or blasphemy.
• However, such instances of judging morally of an act as evil or sinful prior to a consideration of the circumstances and intentions might be questionable, debatable or even invalid in some other societies.
• For a human act to be morally good the agent or doer must have good intentions.
• The motive of an agent can change an act morally good by nature into a morally evil act.
• A good intention, no matter how good, does not make something essentially immoral into something morally good.
• An action that has a good object can become more or less good because of its purpose.
• An action which is inherently wrong may become a greater or lesser wrong depending on the purpose of the moral agent.
• Sometimes circumstances affect the morality of the action only in degree, that is, they contribute to increasing or diminishing the moral goodness or evil of human acts. For example, stealing is bad by object, stealing a rare object/or stealing from a destitute/poor increases the malice of the action. On the other hand, if a robber acts like Robin Hood by stealing from the rich to help the poor, his robberies become less immoral.
• When : Whether it is done during war or peace. For instance, there is an increase in the guilt of an intelligence officer who, when caught by an enemy country at the time of war, succumbs to threat of violence and discloses highly confidential information that severely affects national secrets.
• Where: Similarly, where the action takes place can affect its morality. For instance, a murder in a church/cathedral adds an additional moral evil to murder itself as it involves the profanation of a consecrated place of worship and hence the additional evil of sacrilege.
• Circumstances can also diminish or lessen the agent’s responsibility. For instance, a woman who kills the person who attacks her chastity is absolved from the guilt of killing someone.
• Individual personality traits
• Culture or country of the individual
• Organization/ industry
• The consequences are the effects caused by an action. Many of our actions, decisions, and choices of everyday life are made with an eye to the consequences. Human beings by nature tend to be consequence oriented. That means we have a tendency to seek intended results and the quality of these results/consequences depend on how much goodness they contain.
• If the doer holds notice (even if vaguely) or knows ahead what the consequences of a particular choice or action will be, he/she is presumed to have willed the effect. For example, in case of a bad effect, if a hunter sees an object, but is unsure whether it is a man or a deer. The hunter anticipates vaguely what the consequences of firing a shot may be killing of dear or killing of men. If the hunter chooses to shoot anyhow, he has willed the effect, whether the killing of dear or killing of men.
• If the actor does not perform the act but causes another one to do it (in the form of help, encouragement or persuasion), the first person is still morally responsible for the consequences of the act to the degree that he or she foresaw those consequences. For instance, if a politician gives a hate speech that incites communal violence in a sensitive area, he will be considered guilty of the commission of a wrong act.
• If one remains silent or does not take any action - If a person witnesses a road accident and refrains from helping the victim in critical condition, he fails to perform the duty of a good Samaritan therefore, is guilty of errors of omission and the bad consequences (death of the victim) that follow.
• Thus, whatever increases, lessens or destroys the liberty and knowledge that are essential for a moral act also increases, lessens or destroys the responsibility of the actor.

How do Ethics work in Private and Public Relationships?

• Ethics is concerned with notions such as right and wrong, as well as good and bad human behavior in various social and organizational situations.
• Unlike a politician's or bureaucrat's interaction with the general public or a doctor's relationship with his patients, a person's private relationships, such as marriage, family, kinship, and friendship, are private. Private relationships are more personal.
• Expecting a spouse to be faithful, loving, and affectionate.
• More tolerance for imperfections.
• They are comparatively long-lasting.
• Private relationships are frequently inherited or granted.
• Generally speaking, personal qualities, universal human values, religion, societal conventions, and the law of the nation guide ethics in private interactions. Actions guided by ethics are easier to justify in public. Moral standards and institutions with religious and constitutional considerations also have an impact on ethical issues in personal relationships in India.
• Public Relations are now becoming a vital function affecting management decisions and influencing public opinion in every non-profit or profit-making organization. Monitoring and assessing public opinion as well as preserving goodwill and understanding between a company and its customers are all part of the management task of public relations.
• In public, there are people who are different from dealing with people.
• Public relationships are likely to be instrumental.
• Engagements due to work or benefit.
• Expectation for respect.
• A particular kind of role to be played in public relationships therefore responsible for what a person says.
• Accountability is what a person says and does.

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(Download) UPSC Mains 2024 Question Paper: Essay Compulsory

• Marks : 250 (125 marks x 2)
• Duration: 3 hours
• Exam Date:  20-09-2024
• Year : 2024

Write  Two Essays , choosing  One Topic from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each.

Section-a (125 marks) - choose any one essay.

1. Forests precede civilizations and deserts follow them.

2. The empires of the future will be the empires of the mind.

3. There is no path to happiness; Happiness is the path.

4. The doubter is a true man of science.  

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5. Social media is Triggering 'Fear of Missing Out' amongst the youth, precipitating depression and loneliness.

6. Nearly all men can stand adversity, but to test the character, give him power.

7. All ideas having large consequences are always simple.

8. The cost of being wrong is less than the cost of doing nothing. 

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UPSC Mains 2024 General Studies(GS) Paper I: Download PDF and Expert Analysis

Are you preparing for the UPSC Civil Services Examination and looking for the UPSC Mains 2024 General Studies Paper I? You’re in the right place! This page provides a direct download link for the GS Paper I and offers expert insights to help you excel in your preparation.

The Importance of General Studies Paper 1

General Studies Paper I is a crucial component of the UPSC Mains Examination, carrying 250 marks . It assesses a candidate’s understanding of Indian Heritage and Culture, History, Geography of the World and Society. Excelling in this paper requires a comprehensive grasp of diverse subjects and the ability to interlink concepts effectively.

Download UPSC Mains 2024 General Studies Paper 1

Access the official UPSC Mains 2024 GS Paper I by clicking the link below:

Note: The download link provides the complete question paper as presented in the actual examination.

Expert Insights and Analysis Video

To help you navigate the complexities of GS Paper I, we have an in-depth analysis video that breaks down each question, discusses key themes, and offers strategic tips for answer writing.

UPSC Mains 2024 GS Paper I Detailed Analysis

In this video, our experts delve into the nuances of the paper, providing valuable insights on how to approach each section and maximize your score.

Access All UPSC Mains 2024 Question Papers

Looking for other papers from the UPSC Mains 2024? Access the complete set here:

• UPSC Mains 2024 Question Papers – Download All Papers

This comprehensive resource includes the Essay paper, other General Studies papers, Optional subjects, and more, all available for download.

How to Make the Most of GS Paper I

• Understand the Syllabus : Familiarize yourself with each topic outlined in the syllabus to ensure comprehensive coverage.
• Analyze Previous Years’ Questions : Identify patterns and frequently asked topics to prioritize your preparation.
• Incorporate Current Affairs : Relate historical and geographical concepts to contemporary events for enriched answers.
• Practice Answer Writing : Regular writing practice enhances articulation and time management skills.
• Use Diagrams and Maps : Visual aids can effectively illustrate your points and fetch extra marks.
• Review and Revise : Regular revision solidifies your knowledge base and boosts confidence.

Topics Covered in GS Paper 1

• Indian Heritage and Culture : Art forms, literature, architecture from ancient to modern times.
• History : Modern Indian history, significant events, personalities, and issues; the Freedom Struggle and its various stages.
• World History : Events from the 18th century, including industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries.
• Society : Salient features of Indian society, diversity, globalization, and social empowerment.
• Geography : Physical geography, natural resources distribution, and factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries.

Tips for Excelling in General Studies Paper 1

• Integrate Interdisciplinary Knowledge : Link concepts across history, geography, and culture for a multidimensional answer.
• Stay Updated : Regularly read newspapers and journals to incorporate recent developments in your answers.
• Practice Diagrams : Neat and labeled diagrams can enhance the quality of your answers in geography.
• Time Management : Allocate appropriate time to each question to ensure all are answered satisfactorily.
• Balanced Perspectives : Present well-rounded views, especially on societal issues, to showcase analytical depth.

General Studies Paper I is a test of your knowledge breadth and depth across multiple disciplines. By downloading the UPSC Mains 2024 GS Paper I and leveraging our expert analysis, you can refine your preparation strategy and enhance your chances of success.

Remember, consistent effort, strategic planning, and effective utilization of resources are key to excelling in this paper.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. how crucial is gs paper i for the overall upsc ranking.

GS Paper I significantly impacts your total score, contributing 250 marks to the Mains Examination. A strong performance can elevate your ranking considerably.

2. Can I write answers in bullet points or paragraphs?

A mix of both is advisable. Use bullet points for clarity and paragraphs for detailed explanations, ensuring a coherent flow.

3. Should I include current events in my answers?

Yes, linking historical and geographical concepts to current events demonstrates analytical ability and a contemporary understanding.

4. Is it necessary to draw diagrams in every geography question?

While not mandatory, diagrams can enhance your answers where applicable and make complex information more accessible.

5. How can I improve my answer-writing skills for GS Paper I?

Regular practice, timed mock tests, and seeking feedback from mentors or peers can significantly improve your writing skills.

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